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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 08:48

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What bait should you use for ocean fishing?

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

How should one handle a situation where they suspect their partner of cheating, but their partner denies it and claims it is all in their head?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

For those who were actually old enough to have experienced the 1970s and not for those who were born in the 70s. What were the pros and cons of that era?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?